I answer that, The higher the good to which a virtue is ordained, the more excellent is the virtue.  Now the end is always greater than the means.  But sanctifying grace ordains a man immediately to a union with his last end, whereas gratuitous grace ordains a man to what is preparatory to the end; i.e. by prophecy and miracles and so forth, men are induced to unite themselves to their last end.  And hence sanctifying grace is nobler than gratuitous grace.

Reply Obj. 1:  As the Philosopher says (Metaph. xii, text. 52), a multitude, as an army, has a double good; the first is in the multitude itself, viz. the order of the army; the second is separate from the multitude, viz. the good of the leader—­and this is better good, since the other is ordained to it.  Now gratuitous grace is ordained to the common good of the Church, which is ecclesiastical order, whereas sanctifying grace is ordained to the separate common good, which is God.  Hence sanctifying grace is the nobler.

Reply Obj. 2:  If gratuitous grace could cause a man to have sanctifying grace, it would follow that the gratuitous grace was the nobler; even as the brightness of the sun that enlightens is more excellent than that of an object that is lit up.  But by gratuitous grace a man cannot cause another to have union with God, which he himself has by sanctifying grace; but he causes certain dispositions towards it.  Hence gratuitous grace needs not to be the more excellent, even as in fire, the heat, which manifests its species whereby it produces heat in other things, is not more noble than its substantial form.

Reply Obj. 3:  Feeling is ordained to reason, as to an end; and thus, to reason is nobler.  But here it is the contrary; for what is proper is ordained to what is common as to an end.  Hence there is no comparison. ________________________

QUESTION 112

OF THE CAUSE OF GRACE
(In Five Articles)

We must now consider the cause of grace; and under this head there are five points of inquiry: 

(1) Whether God alone is the efficient cause of grace?

(2) Whether any disposition towards grace is needed on the part of the recipient, by an act of free-will?

(3) Whether such a disposition can make grace follow of necessity?

(4) Whether grace is equal in all?

(5) Whether anyone may know that he has grace?
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FIRST ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 112, Art. 1]

Whether God Alone Is the Cause of Grace?

Objection 1:  It would seem that God alone is not the cause of grace.  For it is written (John 1:17):  “Grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.”  Now, by the name of Jesus Christ is understood not merely the Divine Nature assuming, but the created nature assumed.  Therefore a creature may be the cause of grace.

Obj. 2:  Further, there is this difference between the sacraments of the New Law and those of the Old, that the sacraments of the New Law cause grace, whereas the sacraments of the Old Law merely signify it.  Now the sacraments of the New Law are certain visible elements.  Therefore God is not the only cause of grace.